I had thought that original edition of the Gospel which is attributed as being according to Matthew (the one commonly called the "Gospel According to Matthew" and the "Gospel of Matthew") might have originally been in Hebrew or Aramaic and that it might have contained the name YHWH in it. But maybe no ancient copy of that gospel ever contained the name YHWH (or any variation of the divine name) - especially when quoting the words of Jesus and other Christians.
Various books and articles about the Jewish religion say that at about the 3rd century BCE the Jewish religion started forbidding Jews from pronouncing the name out loud. As a result if Jesus had used the name out loud publicly, he probably would have gotten in major trouble with the religious authorities specifically for doing such. Yet the Gospels never say the religious authorities (or anyone else) faulted him or anyone else for using the name. Surely if Jesus really existed and if he had spoken the name out loud publicly the Gospels would have said that the religious leaders faulted him for speaking the name. [A number of times the 'Gospel of Matthew' even says the "kingdom of heaven" as way to avoid saying the "kingdom of God", and that gospel was especially written to convert Jews to Jesus.] Though the gospels say that Jesus was charged with blasphemy, for claiming to be God (such as when using the phrase "I am" in reference to himself) and for claiming to be the divine Son of Man of heaven - it was not for speaking the name YHWH. Furthermore, all of the extant Greek NT manuscripts lack the name YHWH and virtually all of the extant Greek manuscripts of the OT lack it also.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Names_of_God_in_Judaism says the following. 'It had ceased to be spoken aloud by at least the 3rd century BCE, during Second Temple Judaism.[19] ... Rabbinical Judaism teaches that the name is forbidden to all except the High Priest, who should only speak it in the Holy of Holies of the Temple in Jerusalem on Yom Kippur. He then pronounces the name "just as it is written."[26] As each blessing was made, the people in the courtyard were to prostrate themselves completely as they heard it spoken aloud. As the Temple has not been rebuilt since its destruction in 70, most modern Jews never pronounce YHWH but instead read Adonai ("My Lord") during prayer and while reading the Torah and as HaShem ("The Name") at other times.[27][28] '
The Gospel of Matthew and in the Gospel of Luke tell the wording of what is now called the "Model prayer" (also known as the "Our Father prayer" and the "Lord's prayer'). That prayer though addressing God, never uses the name YHWH nor any form it, nor even the word "God" ("Theos" in Greek). Instead it addresses God as "Our Father who/which is in Heaven" (in the Gospel of Matthew) and simply as "Father" (in the Gospel of Luke). Online sources (such as the one mentioned above) say that even in our modern time, that when praying to God Jews are to avoid using the name "YHWH"/"Yahweh" or even "Elohim" (God). They are allowed to say "Adonai' ("my Lord") instead. The Gospels thus depict Jesus is adhering to the Jewish requirement of not uttering the divine name.
However there are writings from about the 1st century CE which say that some people used the divine name in magical rites, such as in incantations for expelling demons.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Judaism%27s_view_of_Jesus states reasons why people of the religion of Judaism reject Jesus as the foretold Messiah of the Hebrew Scriptures. Many of the reasons, ones based upon the Hebrew Scriptures, are ones I was not aware of. I am impressed by the vast majority of their reasons (note what is said under the headings of "Background" and "Jesus as the Jewish Messiah"). Such makes a strong case for rejecting Jesus as the Messiah/Christ, for rejecting Christianity as being the true religion, and thus for rejecting the NT as holy scripture. It can thus be used as part of set of arguments useful to atheists to persuade some Christians towards atheism. I appreciate that.